(p-q)2 + (q-p)2
Notice that (p - q)2 = p2 - 2pq + q2
But notice that (q - p)2 is exactly the same result....(prove this for yourself)
So all we really need to do is to just double the first result, and we get
2p2 - 4pq + 2q2
.....as Aziz found !!!
(p-q)(p-q) + (q-p)(q-p)
(p2 - pq - pq + q2) + (q2 - pq - pq + p2)
2p2 - 4pq + 2q2.
(p−q)2= p2−2pq+q2 This is the first one'...
Then;
(q−p)2=q2−2pq+p2 This is second one..
After that,,
We must add the first & second
(p−q)2 +(q−p)2 This is equal to that;
=p2−2pq+q2 +q2−2pq+p2
=p2+p2+q2+q2−4pq
=2p2+2q2−2pq That is the final answer.